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My risk with positive husband
I have been married for 10 years and had not been with anyone else. My husband and I are going thru a divorce and about a month ago he was diagnosed with anal condyloma. We have only had sex a couple of times in the last year. He had it removed surgically(I guess it was a very large amount). He let it go for months, he said he thought he had cancer and was afraid to get checked.
In november I had my annual exam (pap) and it came back clear. He said he thought (from his proctologist) I had a 99% chance of having this type of HPV as well. I have had problems with hemroids since I had my child 19 years ago and thought this has been my problem of late.
I have spent hours reading forums and researching this on the internet and am confused. We separated about a month ago and the problem is I had sex (using a condom) with someone else. He did touch my anal region with his fingers
I have looked at alot of pictures online of anal warts and I'm not positive what I have resembles any of them. What I have isn't painful, but does feel somewhat tingly. I attributed it to the fact that my nerves are shot these days and I have had more bowel movements and the hemmroids were acting up.
I am going to see my og/gyn right away. I guess the question I have is what are the chances that if I do have this the person I had sex with now has it? Even though I used a condom if mine are located anally then there is a better chance of him contracting it? I feel obligated to warn him immediately because I know that he could very likely have sex with someone else. If I did give it to him how long before he could know via symptoms?
Also, I understand this is something that can sit dormant and then pop up some time later. What is an average percentage that my husband or I gave this to one another without it showing up for past 10 years if we had both been monogamous?
In november I had my annual exam (pap) and it came back clear. He said he thought (from his proctologist) I had a 99% chance of having this type of HPV as well. I have had problems with hemroids since I had my child 19 years ago and thought this has been my problem of late.
I have spent hours reading forums and researching this on the internet and am confused. We separated about a month ago and the problem is I had sex (using a condom) with someone else. He did touch my anal region with his fingers
I have looked at alot of pictures online of anal warts and I'm not positive what I have resembles any of them. What I have isn't painful, but does feel somewhat tingly. I attributed it to the fact that my nerves are shot these days and I have had more bowel movements and the hemmroids were acting up.
I am going to see my og/gyn right away. I guess the question I have is what are the chances that if I do have this the person I had sex with now has it? Even though I used a condom if mine are located anally then there is a better chance of him contracting it? I feel obligated to warn him immediately because I know that he could very likely have sex with someone else. If I did give it to him how long before he could know via symptoms?
Also, I understand this is something that can sit dormant and then pop up some time later. What is an average percentage that my husband or I gave this to one another without it showing up for past 10 years if we had both been monogamous?
Thank you for answering my question. I went to my ob/gyn today and everything looks just fine, so of course I was freaking out prematurely.
I will be going to the local health department, which my doctor recommended, and get tested for all STI's.
I will be going to the local health department, which my doctor recommended, and get tested for all STI's.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Particular strains of human papillomavirus (HPV) do not tend to infect the anus rather than the genitals; all genital types can infect either area. So the fact that your husband had anal warts does not mean you are at risk for anal warts. Hr probably also had a genital area infection, and you are more at risk for warts of the genital area, not the anus. As to whether you or your husband was infected first and infected the other, there is no way to know (unless one of you has had other partners during your marriage; see the last paragraph, below).
The natural history of genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infections, with both the wart-causing and non wart-causing types, is that they clear up on their own after several months to a couple of years. Since your husband has been infected for a long time, if you have not yet had overt, recognizable warts in the genital or anal area, most likely you have been infected but no longer carry the virus. To be safe, you need to be on the lookout for warts, both genital and anal, and see your health care provider if something develops. Also, follow standard recommendations about routine pap smears.
Finally, you need to be checked for other STDs, including HIV, if that hasn't been done. It seems likely your husband might have had other sex partners during your marriage. Also, anal warts are particularly common in gay men. Many strictly heterosexual men get anal warts as well, probably because of autoinoculation, i.e. local spread of the virus, so this doesn't mean your husband is gay or bisexual. On the other hand, it raises this possibility. Unless you are 100% certain he hasn't had other partners, play it safe and have an HIV test, as well as tests for gonorrhea, chlamydia, and syphilis.
If uncertain about any of this, ask your Ob-gyn provider; or you can visit your local health department STD clinic for expert advice.
Good luck-- HHH, MD
The natural history of genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infections, with both the wart-causing and non wart-causing types, is that they clear up on their own after several months to a couple of years. Since your husband has been infected for a long time, if you have not yet had overt, recognizable warts in the genital or anal area, most likely you have been infected but no longer carry the virus. To be safe, you need to be on the lookout for warts, both genital and anal, and see your health care provider if something develops. Also, follow standard recommendations about routine pap smears.
Finally, you need to be checked for other STDs, including HIV, if that hasn't been done. It seems likely your husband might have had other sex partners during your marriage. Also, anal warts are particularly common in gay men. Many strictly heterosexual men get anal warts as well, probably because of autoinoculation, i.e. local spread of the virus, so this doesn't mean your husband is gay or bisexual. On the other hand, it raises this possibility. Unless you are 100% certain he hasn't had other partners, play it safe and have an HIV test, as well as tests for gonorrhea, chlamydia, and syphilis.
If uncertain about any of this, ask your Ob-gyn provider; or you can visit your local health department STD clinic for expert advice.
Good luck-- HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
