I just had an echo done by my ep because he said he was not familiar with the person who read the
firstFirst progesterone mc10
First progesterone mc5
First-progesterone vgs 200
First-progesterone vgs 400 and how the interpretations ran. This was to decide if I needed antibiotic prophy., which he does not agree with for mild regurg. I have an appt. to find out the results Dec. 15. To keep a short story short, because I was going to have a
moleBirthmarks - pigmented
Gestational trophoblastic disease
Hydatidiform mole
Pth removed, another dr. in his group had an office girl call and she said I needed the antibiotics because of mild mvp. What I want to know is how can this be when I just had an echo 6 - 7 mos. ago that specifically stated "no evidence of prolapse" ( thicken'g of
anteriorAnterior cruciate ligament (acl) injury
Anterior knee pain
Anterior vaginal wall repair leaflet and mild regurg.)?! Also, why would this dr. tell me to take antibiotics for mild, when my dr. wouldn't? Doesn't he care how my dr. deals with this? What's going on?