Is it the case that all cases of so called early onset Alzheimers Disease (diagnosis late 50s/under the age of 65) are considered genetic or is it possible that for this particular person it could have just been a "fluke/bad luck/sporadic" for that person?
Given the fact that the not one of the siblings, (all aged over 70 and one sister aged 82) plus also all of their children some aged into their late 50s have no symptoms of Alzheimers or dementia what do you think, based on your medical and scientific experience could have caused this, (could this have be a sporadic case) plus what do you think are the implications for this persons children? Is there an increase risk for them?
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