AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS COMMUNITY
please help me decipher these results

please help me decipher these results

Hello, I have a history of APS, (2 IUFD's, positive ANA, pos LAC and ACA)...however the doctors tell me that this syndrome won't be an issue for me when I am not pregnant.  
Now, I have also been dx with : Pituitary adenoma 12/07, Liver lesion (which turned out to be focal nodular hyperplasia) 11/08 and multiple breast cysts (for which i am followed every 3 months) that just look like junky cysts.

Recently, my ENT excised a lymph node from my neck which has remained at 1 -1.5 cm for a year now.  I have developed cervical spondylosis and have many enlarged lymph nodes all throughout my c-spine and some in my right axilla.  Most of the doctor i see were'nt overly impressed with the lymph node situation but my pain in my joints and muscles increased so much i was referred to a rheumatologist.  He saw me this november and said...i think you have osteoarthritis and there is nothing you can do for it.  I am only 40 years old.  No bloodwork, no other tests were done, just a VERY brief look at my cspine.  

The pathology on the lymph node is as follows:
"on histologic examination, the lymph node sections are remarkable for interfollicular hyperplasia, mild sinus histiocytosis and only rare secondary lymphoid follicles with wwell-demarcated germinal centers and well-formed mandle cuffs.  By immunohistochemistry, the interfollicular regions are composed largely of CD3+/CD5+ T-cells with admixed a small subset of CD20+B-cells.  The secondary B-lymphoid follicles present have bcl-2negative germinal centers with high proliferation rates while the proliferation rate is low within the interfollicular regions.  The anti-CD23 antibody highlights small follicular dendritic meshworks and where present, the mandle cuff cells.  An anti-cyclin D1 antibody is negative.  Taken together, these histoligical and immunophenotypical findings are in keeping with reactive lymphoid hyperplasia, with predominant interfollicular pattern.  Clinical -pathological correlation is recommended."

When I asked the doctor for a summary of the report he said...".it's okay, it's not cancer. They are just reactive lymph nodes."  Done.

I am really not sure if that is the end.  Is this really done.  Am I worrying for nothing?  I don't know where to go with this.  Can you help me decipher this further..and should I get a second opinion on the rheumatological issue?

Thanks for anything you can do..

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