I have a question, more general than some others posts in this particular forum, but I thought you may have the most expertise to answer my questions.
In regards to LH and FSH Deficiency do these numbers need to be a 0 in order to be a diagnosed deficiency?
My IGF-1 test was 90 ng/mL with ranges of 101-267, GH was 0.8 ng/mL with a range of 0.06-5.00 is this any cause for concern?
I just saw my IT/Endo today and she said IGF-1 would never be treated or explored for a woman of my age (43) and my LH and FSH would need to be 0 to be deficient. I have had amenorrhea for almost 6 months now and 3 months previous to that my. Some recent blood work:
LH is 10.2,
FSH is 8,
Estradiol (pg/mL) 20,
Progesterone (ng/mL) 0.24
Prolactin 4.8 ng/mL
I have lots of other symptoms and test results but do not want to bother you with them here, I am really looking for some guidance on my test result levels above and should they be explored further or believe everything I was just told by my doctor. Who says I have fibromyalgia and suggested maybe I might want to talk to someone professionally.
Your numbers show a tendency to hypopituitarism (decreased pituitary function); in the presence of symptoms and amenorrhea for 6 months a pituitary MRI is indicated to rule out pituitary tumor.
Have you done a MRI?
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