My name is Kara and I am 20 years old. When I was 16 I had 2 serious fainting spells when something clicked in my neck and caused pain in my neck and back. I had always had pain problems with my back but my parents and I thought it was due to me doing Ballet growing up. When the fainting started they took me to a doctor. He gave his diagnosis and then I had a MRI scan. I was young at the time so didn’t really see the seriousness of it and my parents couldn’t afford a follow up scan. I took medication (cataflam mostly for the pain if it was serious) and I stopped Ballet lessons and then stopped basketball as well. The problems with my back stopped then and has been ok for the past few years. Now however, it has started up again and won’t seem to go away even with rest and cataflam. I now have the means of getting an MRI again but I wanted to know if anyone can explain the previous one now that I am older and can understand it better. Here is what it says on the report:
At my first examination the doctor found that I was “otherwise perfectly healthy with no cardiovascular symptoms and no symptoms of neurological dysfunction.
Subtle loss of normal cervical lordosis with otherwise satisfactory alignment of the vertebral bodies. No sinister marrow signal changes. Continuous linear diffuse high signal change within the cervical and thoracic cord probably represents a prominent central canal rather than a syrinx. No high signal changes within the cord itself.
The visualised brainstem and posterior fossa are within normal limits.
Mild broad base disc protrusions mildly efface the ventral aspect of the thecal sac with no compromise of the exiting nerve roots. No spinal stenosis.
No paravertebral soft tissue masses.
Mild disc protrusions from C3 to C7 inclusively with no compromise of the thecal sac nor the exiting nerve roots. Central prominence noted. Follow up MRI suggested.
If you can explain it to me in simple terms it would be much appreciated =)
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