So I had my first mri of my brain and the doc said I had Chiari and ordered a cervical spine mri and I have no talked to him about it yet, but this is the report I got back with the mri:
There is cervicomedullary kinking of a brainstem herniation
and cerebellar tonisillar herniation, consistent with Chiari II
anomaly. There is a tight foramen magnum due to the cervicomedullary
kinking and the cerebellar tonsillar herniation.
They had me go in for a lumbar mri, that was last Saturday and I still havent heard back.
I am trying to figure out if this means I DO have chiari II or if they are trying to determine if I do.
and what is the difference in chiari I and II? I keep seeing different things online.
Type I involves the extension of the cerebellar tonsils (the lower part of the cerebellum) into the foramen magnum, without involving the brain stem. Normally, only the spinal cord passes through this opening.(most on line descriptions say symptoms do not appear until late 30's..etc...I personally do not agree with that...there are children dx'd with chiari)
Type II, also called classic CM, involves the extension of both cerebellar and brain stem tissue into the foramen magnum. Also, the cerebellar vermis (the nerve tissue that connects the two halves of the cerebellum) may be only partially complete or absent. Type II is usually accompanied by a myelomeningocele — a form of spina bifida that occurs when the spinal canal and backbone do not close before birth, causing the spinal cord and its protective membrane to protrude through a sac-like opening in the back. A myelomeningocele usually results in partial or complete paralysis of the area below the spinal opening.
I have been diagnosed with Chiari Malformation and along with that, I have Spinal Bifada. I am 43 years old and have yet to get any answers to what is to come of my life or what should be done. Can anyone give me some answers??????
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