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Asymptomatic STDs
I tested negative for chlamydia and gonorrhea 2 years ago.  I had no symptoms leading up to the testing.  However, I am concerned that I may have tested negative because I had waited too long to get tested (between 3-12 months since other partners).  If I am correct, chlamydia and gonorrhea could resolve by itself without antibiotics.  

I am concerned that I may have passed chlamydia or gonorrhea to my current female partner between getting infected and the time of testing (if I had been asymptomatic and it had resolved itself by the time of testing).  

1. Is it possible to have been tested negative for gonorrhea/chlamydia and had given the STD to my female partner before the test?

2. If she had been infected, would the symptoms eventually show up? in 1-2 years?

3. On a related note, do chlamydia and/or gonorrhea urine tests detect the STD if it has been in your system between 3 months to 1.5 years and has already progressed beyond initial symptoms?

Thanks!
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Oh I should also ask: In general, do yearly pap smears also test for chlamydia and/or gonorrhea?

Thanks!!
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1. Possible...yes. Likely...gonorrhea 50/50, chlamydia...probably not

2. yes probably no more then 18 months at most

3. Yes it would.
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Thanks for your response Vance.

To follow-up, we always use condoms during intercourse.  Is it possible to pass gonorrhea/chlamydia/NGU if you use a condom?  I'm concerned that some of the bacteria may get on the outside of the condom and be transferred that way.  Thanks!
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NGU is normally passed from oral sex and it is not truly a STD because it is commonly just bacteria found common in the mouth. Anything is possible but not likely. But if both people have tested and are negative then neither has a STD to pass along.
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When I said anything is possible...I mean like it is possible that you walk outside and get hit by a car, it's possible you get struck by lightening. But you don't worry about that do you?
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To answer my own question, I guess condoms are never 100% effective against STD transmission.  

It seems to me that the symptoms of gonorrhea and chlamydia in women are very much like a yeast infection (pain when urinating, pain during sex, discharge etc.).  She has had those symptoms, but then they cleared up.  I'm not sure if she talked to the doctor or if they do an STD check during the annual pap smear test.  I read somewhere on here that they test for STDs during the pap smear, but usually don't mention it.

If I got tested and came back negative, and never had any strong symptoms (maybe a mild symptom at some point), would it be safe to say she never got any STD?
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Thanks for answer ALL my questions.  I really appreciate it!

You are right... I don't worry about getting struck by lightning. :-)

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