Can Chlamydia treatment fail, then succeed

This is long and complicated, for which i am sorry, but i can't find any other scenario in here which can shed any light on my own situation!

...When I started my current relationship 5 years ago my girlfriend and I both agreed to take STI tests before having sex. Turned out I had chlamydia for which I was treated. We then failed to wait the week after treatment before having sex (stupid) so we went back and BOTH got treated. She was tested at this point and if I recall was negative anyway. We were not tested again to confirm the treatment had worked.

A year ago my girlfriend had an IUD fitted. At that point she says she was clear of any STIs, which i guess she must have been otherwise they wouldn't have fitted it.

A few months ago I went in to have a full screening because I had some strange sores which I'd had on and off for probably a couple of years. I was baffled by them so finally decided I would ask someone about it. Doc thought it was probably thrush, for which I was treated, but a few days later I was told I had/also had chlamydia.

This was very confusing. I firmly believed I was in a completely monogamous relationship, so looked for other explanations. Perhaps it was a false positive? It wasn't - as a second test proved. Perhaps it was resistant to treatment? This would mean I had had chlamydia for the last 5 years, and treatment had failed twice, through 2 lots of 1 gram Azithromycin. Well - if this is the case then it was certainly cleared up by the 3rd lot, as my recent test result was negative. So my FIRST question is - can 1gram Azithromycin fail to treat twice then treat the third time? Surely if it failed to treat it would need a STRONGER dose to kill it the next time. Or a different type of treatment?

But this still doesn't add up, because my girlfriend was NEGATIVE a year ago. We have regular unprotected sex. So I have been trying to put it down to this: she travels alot and has been on Doxycycline for both malaria prophylaxis AND for acne over the last couple of years. Treatments have been for more than 7 days each time, which means she could have periodically killed off the chlamydia, and possibly this might have coincided with her IUD STI check.

But obviously I am thinking - "Am I just being a mug here?"

One thing that has struck me about this is that she hasn't seemed too concerned. When I found out received the recent chlamydia diagnosis we both went for testing and were both positive (me definitely, her according to what she says). After treatment I made sure to go back in again after 8 weeks to check I was cured. She hasn't bothered to arrange the same for her. Also she is very capable of being incredibly jealous, but she has just accepted this situation and seems to have moved on. But to me it just doesn't make sense!

Can ANYONE provide me with any sort of explanation other than the obvious "She has cheated on you in the last year and caught chlamydia"??

[Vance2335]

To answer your last question no I can't really tell you anything other then that. Well I can and will but it all comes back to she must have cheated (or you cheated).

Men will not have chlamydia for more then 12-18 months and not know it. Women will not have chlamydia for more then 2 years and not know it. There has been 1 reported case of someone having it for almost 4 years and not know it. So there is no way that you had it for 5 years based on all the evidence of chlamydia.

With 2 positive tests you could not have a false positive you had chlamydia and if your gf is the only person you have been with then she is the source and had to have gotten it from someone else. The medication she has taken has probably cleared any past infections that she had.

So again I would love to be able to tell you some other way that you got chlamydia but there is no other way. And based on what you have said I think you probably knew that.