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Can a test miss Chlamydia?
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Can a test miss Chlamydia?

I'm hoping to hear from those who are in the health industry who deal with these matters. TYIA for any serious input. The issue:



What are the odds that Planned Parenthood goofed on an STD back in the mid 90s and showed me negative when I was positive?



The timeline:

1995- got checked sort of by default by Planned Parenthood and was found negative (they stand by their results)
(I had not slept with anyone else but my soon to be live in boyfriend in 2 years.)

- never got checked again because I didn't know annual GYN appointments didn't check for STDs b/c all the ones previously at my university sort of "automatically" checked by way of saying "We're going to check if you'd like us too." Ie. they were strongly suggested that I thought it was a matter of course.



I don't know if I was normal or not, but I was always self conscious as a female about my scent down below. Maybe I was normal or maybe I was carrying something all along and took it for normal???



2001 -had my first kid. Doc never checked or offered to check or gave any suggestion/recommendation to check for STDs, so I thought I was checked. Almost lost the baby due to exposure to an infection - "possibley pneumonia", but she also had conjunctivitis in her eyes- which can be caused by Chlamydia.



2003- NOW it was routine for my OB/GYN office to check for STDs and I was dumbfounded that they hadn't before and all my years previously WITH this doc. Chlam can go w/o symptoms for years, but 8 years? 1st test was inconclusive. 2nd test was positive for chlamydia. My husband was so good at denying it was him that I believed him and blamed Planned Parenthood for not catching it years before.



My theory is the reason the 1st test was inconclusive is b/c the bacteria had not fully bloomed yet. My spouse "accidentally" got me pregnant just a couple months before and he had no issues with control before. I think my pregnancy was a guilt pregnancy- he got me pregnant out of guilt b/c he just slept w/someone else, hence the 1st inconclusive test.- too early yet in other words.



But, if the 1st OB's STD test can be inconclusive, couldn't it also be faulty or miss like the test back in the mid 90s? What would you think? What would you have done?
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