Thirteen years ago, my boyfriend contracted chlamydia. This was according to his girlfriend at the time who apparently contracted it, and accused him of infecting her with it after a supposed affair he had. Because he did not show any symptoms of the infection himself, he did not get diagnosed or seek treatment (obviously not a smart move). I began having a relationship with him six years later, but he did not tell me about this event until this past year (seven years later) he didn't think he actually had chlamydia . If he did though, is it possible that he could have still had the infection six years after contracting it and therefore infected me? I have never had any symptoms, but I know chlamydia does not always reveal itself through symptoms, but only through testing.
Not after six years. After no more than 2 years, severe symptoms start showing up. So, either she had a false result or she needed someone to blame. It is a good idea that you both get tested so you can go on with your relationship knowing you both are or are not std free.