I just received word that my swab for chlamydia came back positive. (I am pregnant.) My husband and I have been married for three years, and the last time he had sex
with anyone else was 12 years ago. I was a virgin at marriage. Is it possible that my husband has had this for so long without any major symptoms? I have had some minor infection like symptoms from time to time in my life (more so before marriage than now), but no severe symptoms, and nothing constant at all.
I had a pap
smear last year and don't know if my doctor then tested for chlamydia, but I will call to ask her. I also plan to be retested, and my husband will be tested. I just want to know where I could have gotten this. Thank you.
I think you should get retested and do it before you take the meds. I have absolutely nothing scientific to back me up on this, but it seems from my experience here, that many of the false positives are in pregnant women.
Since you are pregnant, you should retest as soon as possible, and your husband should also test, just to be sure.
There are different forms of chlamydia bacteria, and there is one that can be spread the way you describe. That would cause pneumonia, though, not a genital infection.
The std test would identify ONLY the type that causes a genital infection, chlamydia trachomatis. If you had a chlamydia blood test, it doesn't specify which chlamydia bacteria you've had, and it might be the chlamydia pneumoniae bacteria. Blood tests for chlamydia shouldn't be done as part of an std screening.