with my wife. A few months later she suffered Bartholin's cyst after her period although it wasn't infected and went away on it's own. I had a chlamydia and gonnorhea (Gonorrhea) test in April 2007 and both were negative. About a week ago she told me she had light bleeding about 10 days after her previous period lasting 2 days. When her period was due she had light bleeding for 1 day instead of the usual 5 days. No bleeding has occured after sex
. Is it possible I infected her in 2006 and then cleared up my own infection before the negative test? Does this sound like Chlamydia or possibly a hormone imbalance.
If this is revolving around the February 2006 relations... you were protected reducing your chances and you tested neg. I doubt you have the infection... Besides by now you yourself would have had symptoms; most likely server symptoms
If you have only been with your wife since 2006 then it is most likely something else that is causing your wifes problems...other than an STD.
pains, change in her discharge painful urination.... and yes a change in her period, It has been 3 years both of you would have had serious symptoms by now.
Yes you would have been reinfected, but chlamydia is not one to heal it self anyhow... very slim chance.
I'm pretty sure your wifes problems are due to something else, us women have a lot to go through and things change every day for us..
If you fear that it really is, go get tested but I'm pretty sure it will be Neg.
Thanks for the comments which were helpful. However I'm still a bit puzzled as to the progression of the disease? You mentioned that my partner would be experiencing severe problems after 3 years however is it not the case that Chlamydia is silent and goes undetected in most cases? What if it never turned into PID and was untreated - what would most likely happen? Would it resolve on it's own?
It goes undetected for a period of time, a few months a year at the most. The reason it is called a silent STD is because someone could have it for awhile without knowing it... but not three years. Trust me you or your wife most likely both of you would have had symptoms before now.
They say it can resolve on it's own but it is not likely, and you and your wife are probably having sex therefore IF either of you had it and the other cleared it you/her would have been reinfected...
I think what you need to do is get tested again to prove to yourself you don't have it... Our information is not going get rid of the guilt that you obviously have.
in myopinion every time your wife has an issue you are going to assume that it is an std from your unfaithfulness 3 years ago. get tested and move on with your life with your wife
Thanks - I think you've hit the nail on the head regarding the guilt. I will get a test however I travel a lot and I'm currently in Italy.
Having said that in the last week I've felt a vague burning sensation in my penis. Don't have any visible discharge and no pain when urinating. I'm wondering whether I'm having symptoms having been reinfected by my wife?
Although I had a negative test in April 2007 I would have been having intercourse from June 2006 with my wife and it's possible I could have given her something during this period. Although the intercourse with the escort was protected I did have unprotected oral. Also, because of the guilt I probably wasn't having sex often with my wife between June 06 and Apr 07 so it would maybe have had a chance to clear up in me? My wife could then have reinfected me after the negative test and we've beein reinfecting each other since? Am I grasping at straws with this or is there a real possibility.
I was also worried about the Bartholin Cyst since this occured soon after first intercourse after the indiscretion. Although not infected I wondered if this was a sign of Chlamydia.
sounds like a very very similar predicament I am in... I guess the best way out is to carry out further investigations to find out what is happening and
take it from there
Okay is the June a new partner now?? I thought your problem was from Feb. 06?
Even so both Feb. and June doesn't matter as you indicated it was protected....
You don't have anything to worry about,Honestly I feel like it is more guilt than anything.
0 risk for chlamydia....
Your symptoms also started the day of your wifes irregular menstrual... Anxiety, guilt is the cause of your symptoms.
Your results were neg. I would take that and move on.
You said your wife had mild bleeding about 10 days after her menstrual period? And then for one day when she was to get her period again? Sweetheart, that sounds like she may need to take a pregnancy test. It could very well be implantation bleeding. I don't know if it is a good or bad thing for you, but rule that out before assuming it may be an std. Good luck to you!