Background info: I'm a 27 y/o male in a monogomous relationship with a 25 y/o female. We have been having intercourse w/o a condom for 12 months. Neither she or I have had ANY other partners in this time period.
Approximately 2 weeks ago she said that she was having to frequently urinate and had a slight burning sensation while urinating. I told her that her symptoms sounded like a UTI and that she should see a doctor immediately. She received results back yesterday from her doctor that she is positive for chlamydia. Her doctor prescribed her medication and informed her that the time it takes for symptoms to appear from chlamydia after being infected is approximately 2-3 weeks. Her doctor told her the ONLY way she could get symptoms now is if her partner cheated recently. I have not been with any other partner for approximately 1.5 years and neither has she.
My partner said she was tested negative for std's 3 months prior to our relationship (15 months ago) and was negative. My prior sexual activity is very limited and low risk so I stupidly was never tested. I have already set up an appointment with my doctor for a full screening. I have not shown any symptoms of the disease which I know is fairly common for males.
That being said, is it possible for symptoms of chlamydia to not show up for 12 months?
Could it be possible that I infected her 12 months ago and she never developed any symptoms and that her current ailment actually is due to a UTI, and that the positive test for chlamydia led her doctor to believe that her current symptoms are from chlamydia?
Are there any other possibilities?
Any help is appreciated as my relationship is in jeopardy. Thank you for your time, -J
It is going to be an easier answer when you get your test and results. If symptoms show it is within weeks, but most women don't show symtpoms and they can show up several months later like 12-18 weeks. More men then women show symtpoms and if you had chlamydia from 12 months ago unlikely that you would not have symptoms.
Best guess right now is she either had a false positive or someone went outside the relationship.
Let me know what your results are...if negative then she either got a false positive or maybe she cheated. If she has not medicated then she can retest.
Sorry to butt in but I'd just like to say - this story seems fairly common, with people that get chlamydia. Same thing happened to my friend (after 2 kids), doesn't sleep around, tested + for chlamydia, hubby was negative. Same story as her friend, after 4 kids, got chlamydia, hubby was neg.
Read up & you'll see just about every page in this forum has a story like this. Something seems to be going on, but the general belief is still that it can 'only' be transmitted via vaginal/oral (unlikely)/anal sex...
My friend did say that her doctor said it 'might' be possible that she contracted it from some public bathroom (though I'm sure many here will simply say "um, no", that's why it's classified as an STD).
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