and some bleeding. I found out I had a beta-strep infection, took antibiotics, and felt better immediately. A week ago I went to the dr w/ the same complaints and found out that I had a beta-strep infection and chlamydia. I have been with the same man for two years. Today I went back to the dr because said she wanted to do a second culture in case of a false-positive result. I was concerned that this was something I could have had for years and it had done damage, but she said it wasn't possible. She said it was a very a recent infection and that it would have to be a very recent infection for my boyfriend as well. Even though I repeatedly asked, she said if I have chlamydia, there was recent indiscretion. I did read online that if symptoms occur, they usually appear within one to three weeks of exposure. So my question - Is chlamydia only transmittable from one person while symptoms are present? Could my boyfriend have had chlamydia for years and I only recently became infected with it or would he have had to just been infected as well? Also, how likely is a false-positive result?
Chlamydia doesn't go dormant, and you can pass it without symptoms.
When you first tested positive for beta strep, did the doc do any chlamydia testing? If she did, and you were negative then, and are truly infected now, then it would have to be a new infection for you.
No test is 100% accurate, and the tests are usually pretty accurate, but false positives do occur.
Your bf could test, and that might help put this confusion