Help with possible chlamydia/gonorrhea infection

First of all, this is more of a venting post, as I have had a whole lot to think about these past few weeks.
I am a 25 y/o male that has been married for almost 3 years. My job tends to keep me away from home for long periods of time, but up until 2 weeks ago, it has been a completely monogamous relationship.

During this last trip, I let myself go a little too much during a night out on the town, and I ended up with another woman in my hotel room. Long story short, the condom I was using broke, and I stopped the encounter as soon as I felt it give way.

This is where everything gets really complicated, and when I realized just how stupid and irresponsible I was that night. Both my wife and myself have been diagnosed with HSV-2. I am on a suppressive dose of Valtrex as I get occasional mild outbreaks, and my wife has not exhibited any symptoms since the diagnosis. Shortly after my encounter, I began to see signs of an outbreak, and after a few days, I realized that it was going to be a little worse than usual.

I returned home a week after that stupid night, and by then my symptoms were some what resolved. My wife informed me that she had been having a slight discharge for a few days (history of UTI's and the occasional yeast infection) so we abstained from sex for a few days to make sure I wouldn't have any complications. I am back on the road now, and unfortunately, I had unprotected sex with my wife before leaving.

I now have a slight burning sensation after urination, and a constant discomfort in my urethra (no discharge). More alarmingly, I've had small lesions show up around my rectum. They're small fissures (2-3 individual fissures from what I can see), and I'm not really sure what to make of these, since I am completely heterosexual and have never had anal sex. If this is another herpes outbreak, it will be my first in this area, but I have a horrible feeling that this may be something else. Basically, things just don't seem right down there.

Chlamydia/gonorrhea somewhat fits the bill according to symptoms and onset (from what I've read, even a possible inoculation in the perianal area), so in a fit of paranoia, I treated myself with a 1gm shot of rocephin and a single 1gm dose of azithromycin (this was 2 days ago).

What are the chances that this is another type of infection related to my wife's discharge (bacterial vaginosis or a yeast infection)? More of a hope, I know, but this hasn't been a classic presentation of C/G.

Or could this all be caused by a recurrent herpes outbreak that has continued past the normal small lesions on my genitals?

I plan on visiting my health care provider as soon as I return home to be tested. My top priority right now is the health of my wife, and although it may mean the end of our marriage, I want her to be fully treated for my mistake. As of today, she has not shown any symptoms of a new infection (just the slight odorless discharge from before).

Any help would be greatly appreciated. I apologize for the long post, but it has been an emotional couple days. If I have passed an infection on to my wife, it will be a lesson I'll carry around for the rest of my life.

[auntiejessi]

Hi there -

The problem with self-treating is that you will never really know if you had anything, and it makes it hard to test for 2 weeks after taking the meds.  

I have herpes as well, and if I get bv or yeast, I get a big bad outbreak every single time.  Its possible that you had another infection like chlamydia or gonorrhea, and it just triggered some nasty herpes symptoms for you.  Have you upped your meds to the treatment dose?  

Is there a reason your wife hasn't gone to the doctor?  I know that sometimes we get kind of complacent and aggravated when we have recurrent infections, but is she treating herself at all?  She needs to see her doctor, regardless of whether or not you tell her.

Since you stopped the contact as soon as you felt the condom break, chances are really low that this is gonorrhea or chlamydia.  Did the woman also give you oral sex?  Its possible that she had gonorrhea orally, and gave it to you from oral sex, or that from oral sex, you got NGU and transmitted that bacteria to your wife.

Aj

[Mehahe]

Yes, I am now taking a gram of Valtrex everyday (500 in the morning, 500 at night). There is a caveat to my anal issues; I have been having loose, sometimes watery stools for the past week or so, so the "lesions" may be legitimate fissures. Unless the BMs are another symptom of my infection...

My wife has never exhibited classic herpes symptoms, so other than the initial positive test, she has not gone back to the doctor. She does get the occasional UTI, but she self-medicates with tons of cranberry juice and the anesthetic meds that turn your pee orange (starts with a p). She has done the same with yeast infections (OTC treatments). I can say that she does get her yearly pelvic exams, and to my knowledge, she has not had any problems.

The woman did not give me oral sex, so if I did pick up G/C, it was from the brief contact after the condom broke.

My self-treatment was a hasty decision, but rest assured that I will be getting a full STD panel when I get back home. As of now, I still have the mild symptoms I explained before, so we'll see what happens (3 days post Tx).

Thank you very much for the reply. Have a nice day.

[Group_of_Researcher_Worldwide]

We are group of researcher worldwide (doctors and volunteers), we have an advocacy and campaign to stop skin related diseases and sexually transmitted disease. We give awareness to the public by symposium, seminar and even blog.

We created some documentation in our website - blog that might help you a related topic about skin diseases and STI.

You can visit http://chlamydiasymptoms.blogspot.com

Hope this will help!