In 2002, I received unprotected oral sex from a woman briefly. I experienced no symptoms at the time. Fast forward to winter 2011. I began experiencing burning/itchiness while urinating. No discharge is present. Could this possibly be caused chlamydia contracted by that brief, drunken mistake?
When I called the STD hotline in Canada they told me you could have it for years and years and not know. But I was told by everyone else no way you could have this longer than a year and not know as a women.
Men however show symptoms right away and it would be impossible for it to lay dormant that long in my opinion.
so the last time you had sex was 2002? it could also be passed along that way as well.
You also could have been tested and given a false positive.
did you take medication for this?
anyhow the best thing is to take the meds and retested as it possibly was a false positive especially since you are not sexually active.
Not to argue with ticked, but 50 percent of MEN do not have symptoms, and 75 percent of women are also asymptomatic according to the center for disease control.....so while it is fair to say a man is more likely to show syptoms right away, it is not correct that men show symptoms right away. And he said nothing about being tested at all....so there was no positive result.
It is correct that most people who do show symptoms develop them within a year.
HOWEVER, chlamydia of the throat is very rare, so It is very doubtful, although slimly possible, that you contracted chlamydia from oral sex. Are you saying you have had no sexual contact since then? If that is the case, you probably dont need to worry about chlamydia.
You probably have a UTI. if you keep having burning, go to the doctor for testing, but it is highly unlikely you got chlamydia from oral sex and have had it for 9 years without knowing.
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