How long can chlamydia take to affect fertility? - can't find much info on this.
I was diagnosed and sucessfully treated for chlamydia 2 and a half years ago, but only now am I getting cramps in my groin. Could this be pelvic inflammatory disease after 2,5yrs or can PID only appear when chlamydia is left untreated and still present in the body? I will make appt at docs to check it out anyway, but just wondered if it's possible even though I've been clear for 2.5 years.
P.S I am still with same partner, haven't been with anyone else, and we are both clear.
Lol. You never know. We get all kinds of questions here. But correct untreated chlamydia has the potential of causing PID, which causes scarring in the fallopian tubes, and can spread to the uterus causing endometriosis, etc. So, it does not seem your cramps are related to chlamydia. Could you just be recognizing ovulation pain?
Perhaps, though I usually notice them and they're around the time of my period. It's not too severe the cramps, Im sure im just being paranoid, but I'll check with doc anyway to be on safe side.
I suppose overall, I was just wondering if when they say chlamydia can affect fertility, do they mean PID occurs inbetween and this is what affects fertility eventually?
Or can chlamydia be contracted, and then when left unnoticed and untreated, can then cause infertility WITHOUT PID ever occuring.
Because, aside from these cramps now, I had always worried that my fertility could be affected from the chlamydia. Even though I have never had PID. Although my chlamydia was treated 2.5 yrs ago (jan 2008) I don't know when I contracted it - it could've been 6 months prior to that, but it also could've been 2.5 yrs before that (july 2005, when i lost my virginity). So although cured of it now, i often think well if i'd had it for the longest possible time of 2.5yrs, then could I be infertile now without knowing it? Or would I have had PID by now before I possibly become infertile.
All very worrying! And confusing, hope that all makes sense!
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