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Incubation Period
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Incubation Period

Two weeks ago I developed symptom and discovered I have chlamydia.  I've been with the same girl for over a year and have not had sex with any other partners.  As she is on the pill, we do not use a condom during sex.  Is it possible that she had Chlamydia before we got together and I'm just now starting to have symptoms a year later?  Or does this mean she likely has been having sex with other partners?
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736575_tn?1288906158
It is possible but not very likely.  Normally, if symptoms are going to show, they do so within 1-4 weeks after exposure.  If either one of you had it this long, you would start to be showing long term affects. Either way, she needs to be tested to make sure you do not risk being reinfected.  Do not have sex with her until you know she has been treated.
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Avatar_m_tn
Sorry, possible but not very likely to which question?

Thanks!
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736575_tn?1288906158
It is possible but not very likely that chlamydia was brought into the relationship from previous partners over a year ago....symptoms of chlamydia after being untreated over a year would begin to be severe heading toward PID for her and epiditymitis for you.
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Avatar_m_tn
Hey,

I'm trying to re-open this thread here.  When I posted I was living away from my sexual partner and so wasn't actively having sex (since the last time we were together and the time which I believe I contracted chlamydia).  After posting here, I got tested (positive) and treated.  Symptoms went away within days.  Although not living together, my partner went out and got treated and tested right away as well.  They gave her the pill (Azithromycin sp??) the same day, before she got the results -- they actually never called her back with the results and she forgot to check.  Just a week and a half ago I flew home and we're now together again and started having sex.  Just a day ago my same symptoms reappeared, so I had her call her doctor's office to check the results... Turns out she was negative.

I haven't had sex (unprotected or otherwise) with any girl besides my partner in over 1 1/2 years.  It seems like more than a coincidence that I flew home for a week in march and contracted symptoms shortly thereafter, got treated, symptoms went away... now when I have sex with her again, the symptoms reappear.  It seems clear to me that I'm catching Chlamydia from her, but yet she tested negative.  Even if the test was inaccurate, she took a pill to get rid of it and hasn't had an opportunity to be re-exposed since.  I'd think this wasn't chlamydia, but rather something else... yet my test confirmed I did have Chlamydia...

Any thoughts?
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Avatar_m_tn
Some relevant information:

I was tested with a urine test and she was tested with a blood test.

I was given the 1 pill "Azithromycin" plus 5 other antibiotic pills to take at one time (in case what I had was a UTI and not Chlamydia).  My partner only received the one pill.
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736575_tn?1288906158
She wasnt tested properly. Blood testing is not accurate for detecting chlamydia. This makes me think a)she never tested or b)she is cheating on you or even both. And it takes more than one pill in a one time dose. You should get tested again and if you do indeed have it again, then you know she is not being truthful with you
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Avatar_m_tn
my daughter has been going out with her boyfriend for ten months now and she has got chlamydia, shes not been with anyone else  andshe has been having bad pains with it , would it be that her boyfriend has been with another girl in this time
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580755_tn?1357673215
start a thread dedicated to your question and it will be answered
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