, oral, etc.) with anyone except my husband. He was tested and we were both treated; a subsequent test showed I am now clear. However, he just found out his original test was negative for chlamydia! How is this possible? He did have an unrelated infection about 6 weeks prior that was treated with cephalexin. Could this have cleared him? Is there a margin for error in the testing? We are both confused and wanting answers.
It is very possible that either of you had a false testing... He a false neg. or you a false positive.
Unfortunately you'll never know which it was. I think at this point what matters it that "IF" you did have it you no longer do.
I'm sorry for the unfortunate events your husband decided to take and I hope things get better for.