Need some answers

I am a married 29 year old male with a 4 year old daughter and another on the way. I have been sexually active with my wife for about 6 years. My wife had a positive result on a chlamydia test. I am certain that she or I have not had any sexual relations with anyone other than each other. It is possible I may have contracted chlamydia before we met. Chlamydia did not show up four years ago when we had our daughter. My wife did go into pre-term labor.(a sign of chlamydia?) Is it possible the testing did not reveal chlamydia after 2 years of exposure? Is there some other way either one of us could have contracted it? My wife and I are really confused. Please Help!
Thanks

[Vance2335]

Either one of you has been outside of the marriage or it was a false positive which has been known to happen during a pregnancy. You and wife would not have chlamydia for 4 years and not know it...well actually 6 years and not know it.

If she has not medicated she can retest and you can test also.

[BAB99]

Thanks. I feel like I have been accused of something I didn't do. I am certain she has not be unfaithful. The only likely answer is a false positive. We both medicated yesterday. If I would have been thinking she could have got retested and I could have been tested. Thanks again for your feedback.