I am a 30 year old male. I had problems with urination since childhood, at least since I was 12 and possibly even earlier. When in early twenties I realized this was unusual and sought medical advice for the first time. I was found to have enterococcal and chlamydial infection (diagnosed through immunological tests on the urethral swab). Interestingly, I did not have any kind of sexual contact prior to the diagnosis, something the doctors did not really ask me about. Chlamydia did not respond to the therapy initially, and it took three rounds of different antibiotics before the urethral swab was found to be negative for the infection. My urinary symptoms persisted, but I was told they would disappear with time, which never happened. A year or so later I was retested for Chlamydia and the results came out negative.
I had been in a monogamous sexual relationship since and had mostly protected intercourse. Earlier this year I decided to see an urologist again who ordered the analyses for the common STDs. The urethral swabs for Chlamydia and Ureaplasma (again immunological tests I believe) came out positive, and Klebsiella was found in my urine and sperm. I have been prescribed a single 1g doze of Azythromycine and 8x200g + 8x100g of Doxycycline. However, after checking the existing literature on Chlamydia I find the presence of Chlamydia rather worrying. I cannot exclude the possibility that I got the infection from my former girlfriend. But given that we mostly had protected sex I do not find this a likely explanation. In addition, this still does not explain how I got infected with Chlamydia the first time - the literature suggests that sexual intercourse is virtually the only means of transmission. Would you have an alternative explanation? Since the antibiotic treatment did not relieve my symptoms previously, is it likely to help me now? If the tests for Chlamydia and Ureaplasma come out negative after the treatment and I still have urinary symptoms, should I continue looking for the causes? Thank you in advance for any information you might provide!
Dr's do not post here you have to pay to post in the expert forum. Which if you can I suggest that you do because I am not going to be able to provide you with the info they can.
But what I think is that the 1st test was a false positive or picked up some other type of bacteria and the test showed it as chlamydia but it was not. I say this because I have never heard or read anything where chlamydia was picked up from non-sexual means.
I think most likely there is something else going on or went on that was not chlamydia but another bacteria.
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