I have been married for 5 years. During my regular exam in 2005, my GYN tested me and the results were negative. Last weekend I went to the ER and was diagnosed with a Kidney infection. Today a doctor from the ER called me and said that I tested positive for Chlamydia. I know that I have not had any other partner other than my husband and I am sure that he had not had any either. In 200 I tested positive for Chlamydia and was treated. Is it possible for it to go undetected or dormant? I also read that Chlamydia in the eye is conjunctivitis (pink eye); could you touch your eye and then scratch yourself and get it? I know it seems as though I am grasping at straws, but there has to be other possible (or unlikely) ways to get Chlamydia.
I have a similar scenario. I have been married almost 6 years. Around 2002, I got tested and was diagnosed for Chlamydia. That same day when the doc called me, I went got retested. I couldn't believe it. I know that I was not cheating and my husband (well back then fiance/best friend) was not cheating and a few days later was told that I have BV. He also was tested and was got a negative result. December 2007, I went to the emergency room because I thought I had a yeast infection (just like before in 2002), the doc there told be that I had BV. I took the meds. The itching stopped but had funny lookin' discharge. In February, I had the same discharge but two days after my period, i began spot. So now I had funny discharge and spotting (look brownish red now). Went to my personal Doc, she told me yesterday that I have Chlamydia. Now, I am having a full period again..no spotting but a real period. Anyway, I took the pills. My husband will be tested and will take the pills regardless of his results. I asked her if I had PID or any other problem that Chlamydia would bring. She said no.
Now, how am I getting Chlamydia...doc said that it is rare for the test that she had done (pap swab test) rarely results in a false negative. So how accurate are the tests for men? a few years Before me, my husband was very promiscuous...could he be a carrier or immune to the disease?
Me17, you are not grasping for straws. I refuse to let a stranger tell me what's going on in my home. Surely there is an explanation. Besides, if it is Chlamydia...it transferred sexually but how is it starts. It may not be solely on infedility but on two but on sex foreign fluids touching...like how some women are allergic to sperm....now, I too sound like I am grasping for straws.
LOL I'm not sure what you are asking, but sexual contact is the ONLY way that chlamydia is spread, and your husband (or you) wouldn't have had this for 6 years without getting very sick.
The testing for men is accurate, but it depends on how it was collected. If it wasn't the first part of the urine stream, or it hadn't been at least an hour since his last urination, it might be a false negative.
Just my two cents - since I just went through this myself. There are a few strains of chlamydia that can be passed by inhalation. This can cause the STD to form. I was a wreck until our specialist explained this very important detail.
Of course, this isn't as common, but it is possible. It's a shame that relationships can be ruined because this isn't explained to people better.
There are different forms of chlamydia bacteria, and there is one that can be spread the way you describe. That would cause pneumonia, though, not a genital infection.
The std test would identify ONLY the type that causes a genital infection, chlamydia trachomatis. If you had a chlamydia blood test, it doesn't specify which chlamydia bacteria you've had, and it might be the chlamydia pneumoniae bacteria. Blood tests for chlamydia shouldn't be done as part of an std screening.
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