Two years ago my husband confessed to "minor fooling around" (claiming no intercourse but that there was 'an exchange of bodily fluids'. Not sure I get the distinction.) He had a genital infection, but the blood tests came back negative for STDs. He recently had another genital infection, and has come back positive for Chlamydia. He swears he has been faithful.
Could the test two years ago been a false negative, and just now he is seeing symptoms? The coincidence boggles my mind...We've been married for a long time...
Tests are pretty spot on. I have been down that road before and tested positive for chlamydia..my g/f basically admitted responsibility for the STD but stated she wasn't unfaithful... I was told she got it from a dildo she unknowingly shared with someone. Anyway the std tests are usually spot on. It's our love for the other person that makes us oblivious to the truth. It's hard to believe an std will not show symptoms at all for 2 yrs.. evidence points to the fact that he was most likely unfaithful recently
An update: his test 2 years ago WAS a urine test (I 'misspoke' above), NAA. The paperwork says it's valid for 'first void volume'. He says he might have caught it mid-stream. Does that make a false negative possible (if not likely)? He didn't medicate then, and has now (7 days cipro, then 1 shot of zithro when he came back positive). He claims that the infection 'reactivated' due to some significant stress he was under in the past few months. I have seen in medical journals the possibility of a chlamydia morphology change, where it can stay viable, but not culturable (in vitro, not nec. in vivo)
I have just tested NEGATIVE for all STDs, however (not sure what test type I had, though). Sex is not frequent in my house (I have some other medical conditions), but 3 to 4 times a month is pretty common. I'm having trouble believing he could be positive all this time and I'm negative.
He would not have it for 2 years and not know it until now. Unless he wants to be a case study he should start telling the truth to you. Because chlamydia does not reactivate based on stress. If you get it and test positive for it and then medicate then it gets cured, if it does not get cured you get symptoms well before now. If he tested negative like you have said then this is a new infection. False negatives are rare.
I really don't see this as a 2 year old infection, but nothing is impossible in the medical world.
So say you had sex 70 times unprotected in the past 2 years...high chance you would have caught it if he had it.
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