I am a 33-year-old woman who was diagnosed with genital warts on September 25. There were about four "warts" in a linear formation on the inside fold of my right labia. I was treated with a common solution (unfortunately, I don't recall the name of the solution, although I believe it had a three-letter name and a percent.) I then saw the gynecologist on October 21, and there seemed to be no change. The doctor reapplied the solution. I went back a few weeks later, and while there may have been a slight change, she applied the solution once again, and told me to come back in a month. I decided to get a second opinion, so I saw another gynecologist last week. He performed a biopsy. The biopsy came back negative for genital warts. However, is it possible that the virus was already "dead" (having been treated multiple times) and would not appear under the microscope? And secondly, the bumps actually do look much smaller now; if they were simply cysts and not actually warts, could the solution have shrunk them? Basically, I am wondering if the bumps could have been warts even though the biopsy was negative. Thank you for your time.
Hard to say. The acid may have been TCA (trichloroacetic acid) or something similar. I guess there's no way to tell for sure at this point whether the original spots were warts that the acid got rid of. But with a current negative biopsy, I think you should feel confident that you don't have them now. I guess you could ask the original physician how sure the original diagnosis was....
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