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PVD - retinal tear treatment

I have an ongoing acute PVD in my right eye and have had laser treatment for a tear.

When I went to have this checked, I was told that there was an old asymptomatic tear in my left eye, and this was treated as a preventative measure.  When I went to have this checked 5 days later, I was told that PVD had not yet taken place in my left eye.  I am now worried that the treatment of an asymptomatic healed tear prior to PVD in my left eye will have made the eye weaker than before treatment.  I am really worried that the wrong thing has been done.

My eyes are myopic at right -6.5 and left -5.5.

Please could anyone let me know what they think?

I have found previous posts related to PVD very useful, but can't find anything on this topic.

Thanks for reading this.

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Avatar universal
Hi there, the doc had already done it without explaining the risks, which I read about later.
I am myopic, but had never been warned about PVD or flashes or anything and so it was all a shock for me.  I expect it is for everyone anyway when this happens, it's not easy.  Thanks for your reply,  I think it will take a while for me to get used to the fact that there are risks with my eyes I didn't know about.
Hope it's going well for you.

Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Yes, well. Not for me. The squahsball hit full on 16 years ago and the doc was much surprised I did not develop any damage (could not see for five dsays because of blod in front of the lens). I remembered very well his fear of RD. After 16 year sit happened, I was prepared for an operation etc. Because the left eye had some small weak spots and no PVD, it makes sense to reinforce them. So when the PVD comes (or if), those weakspots won't develop into a tear quickly..

Are you going to do it or not? What does your doc say?
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Avatar universal
Hi, thanks for sharing your post, it's all interesting.  
It's a strange new world of the unknown and eyes you enter when you weren't expecting it.

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Avatar universal
I had a retinal tear 2,5 weeks ago and it was taken care of via a vitrectomy+laser. The Dr noticed a small pigmentation and a small weaker area at the bottom side of the other eye and I got 176 lasershots there. I was in doubt whether I should have the procedure or not, but she assured me that with those lasershots the chance of it tearing after I have a PVD there is much smaller than when left untreated. The PVD caused a tear (a big one) in the other eye, also at the bottom side. There is not a sign of a PVD in the other eye though, which is far less myopic. Also had a squashball on that other eye, saw nothing for five days but made a full recovery with no visible damage to the doctor....But still I think this event and the -4,25 did not help for the PVD.

Anyway: having those weakspots repaired is better than not I think.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Thanks for the reply.

So if there is a mend of about 105 laser dots on a small old tear, how much risk did that add for me in the future for a tear actually caused by weakness introduced by the lasering?  That's the question I now have to face.  I know I can't change what's happened, but I just want to know where I stand.  The lasering is I think at the edge of the retina.

I am hoping that if there was pigmentation this means that at least there had been vitreous detachment already.
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711220 tn?1251891127
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Pigmentation means old.

Dr. O.
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Avatar universal
I mean on the possible old tear

Sorry
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Avatar universal
Oh yes and he said something about seeing pigment or pigmentation on it.

Sorry forgot to say that.

Regards
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Avatar universal
Oh yes and he said something about seeing pigment or pigmentation on it.

Sorry forgot to say that.

Regards
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Many thanks for your reply.

They didn't make it clear whether it was a hole or an old tear.
I only know that it is at the periphery and physically at the bottom of the eye.
I also know that he couldn't see a Weiss ring.
I have quite a lot of floaters including one beige fibrous looking one.
Does partial PVD seem possible from this?

Thanks and regards!
Helpful - 0
711220 tn?1251891127
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
I do not treat old tears.  I have taken cataracts out in patient with old tears without treating them, but followed them closely.

It you had a tear in the left eye (not a hole) you had to have a partial PVD.  They are the cause of tears (horseshoe tear) in most cases.

Dr. O.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
I should add that I am worried that the treatment in my left eye may make it more prone to tearing when PVD happens.
Helpful - 0
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