I'm a 45 yo female. About 1.5 years ago, I had a brain MRI due to constant headaches. Found a 1.5 cm x 0.9 cm non-enhancing periventricular lesion. My neurologist suspects MS based on lesion location. I do have some symptoms that could be related to MS, but after testing, have been explained by other causes at this point. My spinal tap, evoked potentials, reflexes, etc. have all been normal in the past 1.5 years. A repeat brain MRI 13 months after the first is stable.
On a recent "check-up" visit with my ophthalmologist, my right eye showed a pale optic nerve. My ophthal could not diagnose optic neuritis as I've had 2 normal vision field tests (last was 2 months prior to exam), stable visual acuity of 20/20, a normal VEP (taken in July 2007), and I have had no symptoms of ON.
My ophthal said that it was good that my VF is normal and that my vision is 20/20. He said it could be an "overexposed picture" of the right optic nerve and to come back in 6 months for my usual follow-up.
I have had no pain, no reduction of peripheral vision, nor blurred vision other than the "normal" effects of aging (farsighted and need glasses to read). I have no visual effects due to heat. Due to an absence of symptoms and normal testing, I was surprised at the pale optic nerve.
I'm questioning my ophthalmologist's possible explanation of an "over-exposed" photo. The tech did have trouble getting a picture of my left eye, but it is my right eye that is "pale".
Is it possible to have ON without symptoms and normal VF and visual acuity? It is possible to have an "over-exposed" photo? If so, shouldn't my ophthal have repeated the photo of the eye in question? Is there other Sx of ON during exam that my ophthal would have seen? If I'm having no symptoms of optic neuritis, is it "safe" to wait an additional 6 months for follow-up?
Thank you