I am confused as to what latent hyperopia is? I am 39 and began wearing glasses 8 years ago. Twelve months ago my bifocal prescription was +1.5 / +1.75 for both eyes . . . yesterday I went for my yearly exam - dilated - and my new prescription is +1.5 / +2.25. I knew several months ago that my reading glasses were not strong enough anymore, so the new script was not a surprise.
I have all confindence in my doctor, but he doesn't explain in layman's terms what my "condition" is. He said that "your baseline is +3.5" . . . . please explain! Does this mean that I will eventually be strapping on 2 magnifying glasses to my head???? :-)
My doctor said surgery is not an option until my eyes "stabilize" and that my eye muscles are working overtime.
I am not an anxious person, but this has me very upset.
At age 40 most patients do not need a bifocal. Your have latent hyperopia--you can accommodate through some of the hyperopia due to your ages. As you age this latent hyyperopia would become manifest more plus, probably close to 3.75.
If you were fully corrected (which you probably will not tolerate), you would not need the bifocal part.
I am still unsure of what latent hyperopia means???????
All I know is (1) that each year my glasses become stronger and more magnified and (2) I wear my distance glasses all day (+1.50) . . . but when I read, I use my progressive bi-focal glasses that have +1.50 in the top and the newly prescribed +2.25 in the bottom.
What does all this mean and is there surgery available?
I'm 23 yo and my prescription is of OD+.50 -1.25 x 180 OS+.50 -1.25 x 170 with an add of 1.50...(and again I'm having problems to read)I have been wearing bifocals since age 19 and the power is getting higher..is there any kind of exercise I could do in order to improve my eyesight?
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