This is probably an easy question, but I am not sure what to make of it, I have a doctors appt this week and I was going over my MRI written report, and it talks about a few different causes for the white matter on my brain. and it lists MS, but then says "in the approptiate clinical settting." What does that mean exactly? I wanted to know before my visit, I have many questions for my neurosurgeon but I figured this is one that some of you could answer.
My mothers sister has MS so I didn't know if that would pertain to it.
It's saying in combination with the correct timing, type and pattern of symptoms...
There is currently no evidence to show that MS is hereditary, so I wouldn't worry too much about your mother's sister...
I note you are posting in the Fibromyalgia/CFS forum.... do you have Fibromyalgia/CFS? Patients with Fibromyalgia/CFS do sometimes show irregularities on the MRI... seperate from conditions such as MS.
I know you were diagnosed with fibromyalgia (if memory serves me right). I also remember you have a couple of people in your family with autoimmune conditions.
I don't know what to say, but I hope all is well with your visit and I hope that you do not have MS. One thing I remember reading about MS, is that many MS patients have a low uric acid level (blood test). But CFS patients also have a low uric acid level as well. I sometimes think that there is a fine line between some of these conditions.
j_s_w is right. Half of people who have a CFS diagnosis (probably fibro too) have abnormal MRI results :
"Cranial MRI will show small T2 weighted high intensity lesions in 80% of cases" ---- Dr. Charles Lapp
IMO it means the lesions coincide with MS symptoms. So if there are lesions on MRI and weakness or numbness or other typical MS symptoms. If there are lesions but no symptoms then the "appropriate clinical setting" is not there.
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