My 32 yr old brother has just been diagnosed with FAP. It is most likely already
malignantCancer
Gestational trophoblastic disease
Lymphoma, malignant - ct scan
Malignant melanoma
Malignant otitis externa
Melanoma of the eye
Multiple myeloma
Skin cancer, malignant melanoma, based on clinical examination. Biopsy and CAT results are pending.
My parents are 56 and 59, no Hx of colon problems. They have each had
clearClear by design
Clear eyes
Clear eyes acr
Clear eyes clr
Clear-atadine
Clear-atadine children's sigmoidoscopies but never undergone
colonoscopies. I understand that 20-30% of FAP is spontaneous, and we are guessing that is the case here, but I believe in rare cases attenuated FAP can present as late as the 60s, and sometimes only in the right colon. However, I am unsure of the exact relationship between attenuated and (standard) FAP. Can a person inherit the genetic
disorderAdjustment disorder
Anorexia nervosa
Asperger syndrome
Autism
Autoimmune disorders
Bipolar disorder
Bipolar disorder
Bleeding disorders
Borderline personality disorder
Bulimia
Chronic motor tic disorder and present with (standard) FAP while the person he inherited from presents with attenuated FAP?
My brother has a 10 year old daughter (his only offspring). She has had cramps and diarrhea (no bleeding) for a couple of years. Tentative diagnosis last year of
lactoseGalactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
Lactose intolerance
Lactose tolerance tests intolerance, but dietary changes (including elimination of all lactose) made no changes in her symptoms.
I am 34, no Hx of medical problems.
My other brother is 27, some Hx of frequent, but not constant, cramping and diarrhea (no bleeding).
What is the connection between FAP and attenuated FAP? Based on this profile, what is your opinion on who of the 5 of us (our parents, me and my other brother, and my niece) should be tested? Which is more likely or beneficial ... colonoscopies or genetic testing?
Thank you for your time.
Also, there is a line in your response referring to "gene carriers." I understand this to be an autosomal dominant disorder, implying that there would be no such thing as a non-disease-developing carrier ... if you have the gene, you have the disease, in other words. Am I understanding that wrong? Is it possible to "carry" the gene but never develop the disease (in a normal lifetime)?