Hi there,
I am 24 years old, have been diagnosed with
posturalPostural drainage orthostaticHypotension
Multiple system atrophy tachycardiaArrhythmias
Multifocal atrial tachycardia
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (psvt)
Sick sinus syndrome
Ventricular tachycardia syndrome (aka POTS) and just recently was diagnosed with
gastroparesisGastroparesis via
gastricAdjustable gastric banding
Culture of gastric tissue biopsy
Gastric cancer
Gastric culture
Gastric suction
Gastric tissue biopsy and culture
Gastric ulcer
Gastroparesis
Peptic ulcer
Pyloric stenosis
Weight-loss surgeries emptying study. I was told that my
gastroparesisGastroparesis is most likely due to an autonomic dysfunction because there is evidence already of an autonomic issue effecting cardiac innervation when upright (the POTS) ...
I have two questions.
The first is, at the four hour mark on the gastric emptying study, I still had 40% food remaining in my stomach. If severity of paresis is based on percentages of retained food/tracer, at the four hour mark if i still had 40% remaining in my stomach, what severity classification (mild,moderate, or severe) would that fall under?
Also, second question, do you know of any specific diagnostic testing that can determine the root cause of gastroparesis aside from just a broad category of "autonomic dysfunction" ?
I have tried many medications and none seem to be working. my primary symptom is nausea, no vomiting. I am limited as to what meds i can try because i'm on a beta blocker that is contraindicated with the majority of pro-motility meds since they are known to prolong the QT interval.
Thanks for your time,
Angel-a.
Does anyone know if the basis for gastroparesis severity is more diagnostic at the T 1/2 level or at four hours?
I have heard both, that the T 1/2 is what docs base severity on (because at 90 minutes more than half food content should have passed into the duodenum) and also that two hour GES arent good enough, that a four hour revealing more than 10% retained food. hmmm, so which is it? my T 1/2 didnt occur until 180 minutes (three hours).
I am just wondering which is true for accuracy because i have heard so many conflicting reports to which is considered significant and what is not. i just know how some docs work, that if a diagnostic test proves a "mild case" of something, symptoms a patient is having unfotunately can be treated the same, as just being mild, even though someone could be suffering greatly - with incapacitating symptoms. i'd rather not waste my time seeing specialists even though my symptoms are severe, if everyone is going to look at a "mild" test result and treat my symptoms as though they were just "mild" as well.