I submitted a question on November 25 "Life after a total
colectomyLarge bowel resection" to which you kindly replied with very helpful comments. Thank you very much. However, based on further medical information which I have subsequently learned, I would like to ask for some clarification. By the way I forgot to let you know that I am male aged 59.
As you may recall, I suffered torrential
rectalAnorectal fistulas
Colon cancer
Colorectal polyps
Digital rectal exam
Hemorrhoids
Imperforate anus
Imperforate anus repair
Inflatable artificial sphincter
Proctitis
Rectal biopsy
Rectal cancer, x-ray bleeding (losing up to one litre of blood/mucus on each occasion - perhaps 3-4 times per day) over a period of four days. I received 16 pints of blood plus a large volume of IV fluids. In case of the need for urgent surgery I was "nil by mouth".
An
endoscopicErcp examination was performed on the second day - result
normalNormal saline flush. An
angiogramArteriogram
Cerebral angiography
Cholecystitis, cholangiogram
Coronary angiography
Gallstones, cholangiogram
Hemangioma - angiogram
Lymphangiogram
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
Renal arteriography failed to detect the source of the blood flow into the large intestine. After about six days I was allowed to start eating again and then discharged from hospital on day 8 with a follow-up
colonoscopy recommended. When I left hospital, my motions were formed of what I think you describe as "melena".
A couple of months later I suffered a further minor episode of rectal bleeding - so back to hospital for 3 days but no blood transfusions although I did receive IV fluids (glucose and saline??). Once again I left hospital with "melena". Then came the colonoscopy (diagnosis severe diverticulitis) followed by the total colectomy.
My question relates to the implications and significance of the "melena". I have recently read that melena is/are formed as a result of intestinal blood releases interacting with the digestive juices/processes. I have become concerned that perhaps my original torrential bleeding may have originated in the "small bowel" thus causing eventual melena when digested food passed into the bowel and the bowel became active again. In other words could it be that the decision to carry out a total colectomy might not have eliminated the original cause of the torrential bleeding which, based on the brief existence of melena, could have originated somewhere between the stomach and the beginning of the colon rather than totally in the colon? Or is it the case that melena can be expected to be formed when the bowels start working again after torrential bleeding from somewhere in the colon as opposed to the small bowel?
The "dark cloud" of torrential rectal bleeding requiring emergency admission to hospital was a severe strain and, after the total colectomy, I was sure that this burden had been lifted but the interpretation I have (perhaps wrongly) made on the presence of melena has filled me with fear again.
Thank you very much in anticipation of your clarification.