I was admitted with appendicitis confirmed with a CT scan. It was retrocecal and my cecum was more in the middle rather than the over to the right. I wanted a laparoscopic excision, but my surgeon shouted at me when I asked about this and proceeded to do a midline laparotomy. What were the reasons for not performing a laparoscopic removal? My surgeon wouldn't tell me, but I am still curious. I am slim 28 year old male and I am concerned that when I resume my normal activities that I will be at increased risk of a hernia because of this. Thank you.
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