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Here I am again. Around June 24, I had sex with a woman of risk to be sure. This was high volume protracted sex over the course of a few hours. No anal, however. It was 69 and vaginal sex. As of this date (August 20), the last month of my health has been strange to say the least. And this all may be coincidental. I have experienced classic symptoms of acquired angioedema which include:
1. acute swelling flares in random sites, thus far, my feet soles, heels, both hands, my tongue, my lips and right cheek, my throat, both sides..
2. small random bumps (not a rash per se) that are itchy on the front of my neck.
3. major abdominal pain and cramping
4. strange diarrhea with yellow watery fluid
5. low grade occasional fever
6. sweats which could be attributed to the medrol I was prescribed for the initial onslaught of this disorder; the sweats were not the ones i read about where the entire bed is drenched, but my tee shirt was and my skin and hair.
7. I had to go the the ER one night because my tongue got to the point where I became concerned about my airway. They IV'd me and admn'd epinephrine which didn't intercede, apparently a sign that it is acquired angioedema.
There are probably some things I'm leaving out, but at this point I'm pretty exhausted. The question I have is, because I realize these symptoms are not the "triad" I read about in multiple posts here, is it possible for a sero conversion to cause the C1 INH to mutate or become non-functional or have in some way even caused these things to happen? It seems so very complex when talking about these C1, C4 mediators, etc. Can HIV operate in this way?
I live in Los Angeles. My last question is, I would probably opt to remain anon, and just alter my life privately if I did have HIV, so would my primary be obligated legally to add me to some state sanctioned list of AIDS patients?
I realize the complexity of this. I hope you can offer some insights. ty
My apologies for this late reply. I am not sure why your post has been missed.
I am very sorry once again.
Rather than speculating on complicated and unlikely theories, my advice to you is to get tested. By now you can get a reliable result, which will put an end to all these tribulations, which are beyond your and most people's understanding.
"in all reported cases of C1-INH deficiency caused by an autoantibody, C1-INH circulates in the blood in a form that has been cleaved by target proteases from its native molecule to a 95-kd fragment. Because of the higher affinity of the autoantibody for native C1-INH, the 95-kd antibody/C1-INH complex dissociates, and the freed antibody can bind to another native C1-INH molecule, allowing for the further depletion of C1-INH."
Can HIV sero conversion effect this? Or is that only after an HIV+ person has reached AIDS status?
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