Dear Doctors,
I had unprotected insertive oral and protected vaginal sex twice with the same CSW in Bangkok on July 15 and 16. To be honest, I didn't give it too much thought as the vaginal part was protected ( and the condoms intact (to the best of my knowledge and I know what a breakage looks like!). In addition, the CSW assured me she has regular blood tests (incl. HIV) in connection with her job in the bar where she works and the last one (which took place a few days before our encounter) was all good.
However, I started developing a rash in my groin a few days post-exposure (maybe 7-10 days or so) with no fever, sore throat or any other symptom. It was subsequently diagnosed as a fungal infection which reacted well to Nizoral treatment (it lasted for a month or so). I also developed an itchy scalp after that (maybe 2 weeks post-exposure) which is almost gone now after applying a medicated shampoo for the past few weeks.
However, on day 24-25 post-exposure (which I understand is too late to be ARS based on Dr Handsfield responses to multiple posts), I had a viral tonsillitis with fever (lasting for 4-5 days between 38c and 39c at its peak), sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck (but no related rash except for the one on the groin and scalp itch which had appeared way earlier). By the way, my son also had a tonsillitis that same week so I guess it was just a virus we exchanged. Plus, I also had a flu and another tonsillitis earlier this year (in March and April, respectively) so I think it is just a coincidence.
I just want to confirm with you that this does not sound suspicious for HIV and that a rash cannot possibly occur so early before the rest of the symptoms during ARS (my understanding of the sequence is that a sudden fever onset is followed by the rash, not the opposite). Your feedback / re-assurance is highly appreciated.