HIV incubation period, symptoms

[newquestion]

I'm a gay man who had a lower risk encounter (oral sex without ejaculation), and 36 hours later began to experience flu-like symptoms (sore throat, slight fever, aches) and a sort of burning sensation in my inner thighs.  The flu-like symptoms are going away, after 3 days, though the burning in my groin/thighs is still present.  

I went to my Dr., who said that HIV was unlikely, and said it was probably just a regular virus.  She suggested getting a Gonorrhea and Chlamydia tests over an HIV test, which I did.  I contacted the other guy, who told me that he was screened (with negative results) in June, and that he does not engage in higher risk behavior (anal sex, etc).  

Is it correct to assume that HIV would not begin to show symptoms in such a short time?  Everywhere I have looked, I've read that symptoms usually don't show for a few weeks, let alone a day and a half later.  I think I might be getting myself worked up.

So basically, oral sex without ejaculation, with flu-like symptoms and inner thigh discomfort 36 hours later.  

[sapna159]

A related discussion, HIV was started.

[sapna159]

A related discussion, HIV was started.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Please, this is an anxiety driven question.  Nothing is impossible when it comes to science and probabilities. Is it a realistic concern- no, it is not.   Time for this thread to end.   EWH

[newquestion]

Hi again Dr. Hook,

Just one more thing


With my first question, I asked if it was impossible, or just unlikely, for ARS symptoms to start after 36 hours, and you said "correct".  So, not possible or just unlikely?

Thanks so much

[Edward W Hook, MD]

1.  Correct.
2.  I did not say what it si likely to be however I said it is not due to HIV.  You need to be examined by a medical professional to help ascertain what it is
3.  No change in my advice

EWH

[newquestion]

Dr. Hook,

Thanks so much for getting back to me.  It's quite a relief to read your response.

Just to clarify:
1.  So you're saying that it's simply not possible for ARS symptoms to start 36 hours after exposure, or just very unlikely?
2.  Do you think that my inner thigh/groin discomfort is simply just lymphnode swelling from the regular flu?
3.  The other guy is a person I know rather well, and is definitely telling the truth about the last time he was tested.  However, he is sexually active, and has had multiple oral sex partners since his last screening.  

Thanks again for your advice.  

[Edward W Hook, MD]

welcome to the Forum. I agree completely with your doctor.  let me share with you some of the reasons I say that this is unlikely to be HIV with confidence:

1.  The chance that your partner had HIV is low.  His statements about testing are reassuring.  Most people do tell the truth.
2.  The quoted figure for HIV risk, if one has oral sex with an infected partner is less than 1 in 10,000 and, in my estimation that is too high. Some experts state there is no risk at all from oral sex.  Neither of us on this site have ever seen or reading the medical literature of a convincing instance in which HIV was passed by oral sex.
3.  Symptoms are not very helpful in HIV diagnosis.  THE ARS is rare and your symptoms began too soon to be the ARS.  Typically the ARS symptoms begin 2-3 weeks following exposure.  For your symptoms to begin 36 hours later is far more consistent with a community acquired, non-STD viral infection.  
4.  Inner thigh discomfort such as you describe in no way suggests HIV

Hope this helps.  You really have nothing to worry about.  EWH