Dear Doctors. I will try to keep this brief but there are a number of facts.
What is risk of HIV infection under facts below:
In 2010 had protective vaginal sex with female whose hiv status unknown.
In 2011 had protective vaginal sex with female whose hiv status unknown.
Live in the United States
Recently had ba cold/ upper respiratory infection. Doctor said viral infection. He did not take blood.
Two days after I started getting sick with cold, blood was drawn for health clinic employer provides to all employees. We dont see a doctor, just technician takes blood, it goes to lab and we receive blood results.
The report showed my lymphocycte count was 14 and normal range was 20-40. My absolute lymphocycte count was 1.1 and think the normal range was 1.2--to 3.0. ( I am sure you know the correct normal range) All other blood work was normal.
Do I have any concern for the two instances from 2010 and 2011 given my blood work . Or is my blood work result likely from severe cold/upper respirator infection. I have recovered from the cold.
A slightly low lymphocyte count does not even hint at HIV. Not that HIV can't cause that -- but generally only in the advanced stages, when you would be quite ill because of severely suppressed immunity. And as your doctor said, other garden-variety minor viral infections can have the same effect. Further, entirely healthy persons' lymphocyte counts vary widely; it isn't at all rare for the levels to transiently fall below (or rise above) the standard normal range -- and at 1.1 (i.e., 1,100 cells per mm3), yours was barely low anyway.
Further, the two exposures you have described were both zero risk (or close to it) in regard to HIV. The odds are low that either of your partners had HIV, and condom-protected sex is risk free if the condom doesn't visibly rupture.
Of course if you remain nervous about it despite this reassurance (and your doctor's), you could always have an HIV test. CDC recommends that everybody be tested for HIV at least once, regardless of apparent risk -- so if you haven't been tested, this might be a good time, when it's on your mind. But definitely not because of your sexual exposures or your lymphocyte count.
I hope this has been helpful. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
The absolute count is what's important; the percentage range (20-40% lymphocytes) doesn't matter. At 14%, it just means your total white blood cell count was around 8,000 (which also is a normal number).
My advice is to entirely disregard your blood count. It doens't mean anything important.
Dr. Handsfield , I am following up on my Dec.9 thread and your response. If I need to start another thread I will be glad to do so.
As you suggested, I tested-by using the newly FDA approved Orasure Home Access test which uses saliva.
My results was negative. However, I need your or Dr. Hooks advice on the reliabiltiy of the test.
My reading of the Orasure /FDA documents on the Orasure Home Access test, state that its about 93% accurate for sensitivity and 99.9999 for specificity. Apprantly when the controlled testing was done before FDA approval the test didnt pick up 8 people who were in fact positive and those 8 were given false negatives. It appears that only one of those people were seroconverting at that time.
Any exposure I had was 16 months before I took the Orasure Home Access test.
DR.Handsfiled in an October response to another user indicated that the FDA test the way the testing was done but not the "reliability". But he also said that the recently approved Home Access is basically the same as the oral swab test that has been used for years by medical personaland I understood that he was saying that the new test was as reliable as the one in existence for years.
My question is do you think my negative Orasure Home Access result which was obtained 16 months after an exposure is conclusive of my negative status or should I get a blood test?
As noted, I will be glad to post in another thread or pay additional fee if this should be a new thread.
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