Ten years ago, I had sex with a white female escort in Atlanta. I was intoxicated and having a tough time cumming, so, I pulled out, at which time the condom came off inside her. She went to the bathroom and pulled it out. I washed myself. She did not have another condom, so she finished me off with a handjob. Afterwards, we talked and she gave me her name and number to call her, directly (instead of going thru the service), which I never did. Honestly, I don't know how long I was exposed to her vaginal fluids. I never had any symptoms and felt that I was pretty much "safe." Three years ago, I applied for some life insurance. I signed an HIV consent form, which said I may be tested for HIV. The insurance company's guidelines specifically call for HIV testing in GA, which is listed as a high-risk HIV state, so, I'm pretty sure that I was tested, although I received no notification of the results. I was denied coverage because my psa test was out of the normal range. Recently, my significant other was diagnosed with congested heart failure. I read on WebMd that HIV infection could be a cause of CHF! Is it possible that the insurance company would not have advised me that I tested positive for HIV, since they could use my abnormal psa results as the reason for denial? I mean, since my psa was abnormal and if the HIV test was positive, they really only need one bad reason to deny me coverage. Could they have chosen to tell me only of the abnormal psa, and decided not to tell me of a positive HIV test result. Would that make any sense? Am I being too cynical? Wouldn't they be obligated to let me know if I tested positive for HIV? If they didn't say anything about the HIV test, can I assume that it was negative or normal? (Their guidelines say "No routine notification will be given if HIV test is normal.") Just trying to make sense out of this!