I never involved in penetrative sex and I am a virgin till now. In the past I asked a question about visiting a CSW and only getting protected oral sex. But the CSW had vagina fluids on her hand while putting on the condom and she touched the inside part of the condom for sure. These fluids might have massaged in to my urethra and under my foreskin. This is my only potential exposure till now.
Doctor Hook's comments on two different posts made me confused if this is a low risk or no risk exposure. In one post he suggested testing. I am scared now, so please suggest me, if I need to get tested? Please find the two posts that I am talking about. With due respect, I am not trying to question Doctor Hook's comments.
1) Is my exposure no risk or low risk?
2) Why is there a difference in assessment for both the posts even being same type?
3) Do I need testing? This is my only potential exposure.
4) Can I go ahead and get married peacefully.
Welcome back to the forum. But I fear you are continuing to worry unnecessarily about HIV in circumstances that carry no realistic chance of transmission.
I see no important difference in Dr. Hook's advice in the 2 threads you cite. In both he says there was little or no risk of HIV transmission. Don't split hairs when you read other threads. I'm not taking the time to read those replies in detail, or to figure out why he might have suggested HIV testing in one but not the other. Maybe it just had to do with how worried one user was, i.e. the idea of testing for reassurance even when the risk is very low or zero. If you read them carefully, you should be able to sort it out.
And you're really over-thinking the situation in the exposure you describe. Probably a little bit of vaginal secretions get inside condoms all the time, maybe even a majority of sexual exposures. Yet we know condoms are virtually 100% effective in preventing sexual transmission of HIV, as long the head of the penis is covered while inside the vagina.
1) It is impossible to prove a negative. I can say condoms are 100% effective, but still acknowledge situations how someone could catch HIV despite using a condom correctly and without breakage. So is your exposure "no risk"? Probably not. Is it sufficiently low risk that you shouldn't be worried? Yes.
2) See above.
3) From a medical or risk assessment perspective, you don't need HIV testing on account of this event. But since you're nervous and getting married, it's probably a good idea. (This is not "code" to suggest I really believe there is a serious chance you caught HIV. I do not.) But some people require the extra reassurance of a negative test result, even in zero risk situations -- and based on this question and the discussions you have had previously with Dr. Hook and on the HIV community forum, you're obviously one of them.
4) If I were in your situation, I would continue unprotected sex with my wife without worry. I see no reason you shouldn't get married and have unprotected sex with your partner.
Regarding the answer 1) I am interpreting that you are mentioning about scenarios where people had penetrative sex with condoms. But I have never inserted my penis even with a condom in to a person's vagina.
So that is the reason I asked if it is a low risk or no risk. My only exposure is protective oral with possible contamination via wet hands. This is my last comment for sure.
"I have never inserted my penis even with a condom in to a person's vagina." Then what is this all about? Are you talking about the same exposure as in your previous question last September? If so, my advice is to re-read that thread.
Let's make this very simple: if you a bare penis (no condom) doesn't enter another person's vagina, rectum, or (rarely) mouth, there is no realistic risk for sexual transmission of HIV and it shouldn't worry you.
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