My girlfriend and I tested for hiv and my girlfriend got the result back today. The result says "negative" and in "reference range" column states "nonreactive". It says that test was "hiv 1/2 ABS /W RFLX CONFIRMATION". It also says hiv-1/hiv-2 ABS ELISA. Does that mean ELISA was done first and then confirmed with something else? Or does it mean that it was confirmed by another test because the result of ELISA wasn't good? It also says in the notes "confirmed test ordered...". I wanted to verify if confirmation is a standard procedure or if it's only ordered if first test didn't go well. Is this a conclusive negative result?
"HIV 1/2 ABS /W RFLX CONFIRMATION" is a statement of the test that your partner's provider requested. "Reflex" means the second stage test does not require the provider's specifi request; i.e."With reflex confirmation" means that a confirmatory test would be done automatically if it were necessary. In this case, it was not: the ELISA was done and nonreactive. That means your partner's result is conclusivley negative. No confirmatory test was necessary and none was done.
At least that is how I interpret it. If you want still more certainty, your partner can call the lab and ask them directly. (Due to privacy laws, I doubt they would discuss it if you were the one who called.)
Thank you very much for your prompt answer. Why would a confirmatory test be usually done? Because the first one was positive for whatever reason? The "negative" and "nonreactive" results are right across the on the same line as "hiv-1/hiv-2 ABS ELISA". If ELISA would be positive then I assume the next line would specify results of confirmatory test (possibly western blot), right? What if the confirmatory test was required - what does that really mean and would the confirmatory test be considered 100% accurate if was negative?
Do you think we should verify this with the doctor or the negative nonreactive result as specified on the report is 100% accurate?
Please answer my last question on this. I just wanted to verify if first test was positive and confirmatory test that was done after that is negative - is it possible that maybe the person was recently infected and that's why there were conflicting tests? Or a negative elisa is accurate and reliable regardless of whether it was first or confirmatory test?
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