just for general knowledge...is this the case or it needs to develop into AIDS for this happen?
if so, what is the time frame?
I'll appreciate your comments.
regards,
hi there,
just to clarify a bit.
i'll appreciate your response rainlover. A lot has to do with anxiety. you see, I had a 'false positive' test six month ago. I have tested every month since in different labs and all tests have come out negative (last test 6 months after risk).
however, i got really paranoied and have not been able to get over it. Anyhow, in the last 3 months, i've been sexually active with my GF and she has been very sick with flu, shingles, and what haveyou. Something unusual for her... My questions to you are :
1) Can i have false negative after 3 months window period even if chances are miniscule?
2) IF hypotethically, i infected my GF... whould she had a weaken inmune system within 4-6 month?
thanks Rainlover. Im posting here because i know you don't reject any posters... I appologize for any inconvenience.
regards,
I will answer both your questions. 1.No,a negative after 3 months is accurate. 2.Not necessarily,she could be a LTNP but you haven't infected anyone if you tested negative at 3 months.All the best.