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Although there are several studies which challenge the view, the widely cited statistic for HIV transmission in a single act of unprotected vaginal sex with a partner known to be HIV+ is 1/1000.
Obviously there are the "influencing factors", namely weather the female is menstruating, presence of other STD's and viral load.
However, I am wondering if the woman has a high viral load, for example she has been infected in the past month, does this influence the 1/1000 statistic to as low as 1/10 etc. Or is the "influence" that is often talked about not as impacting?
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