A dumb question, but just curious.

I know this is probably common sense, but I just want to be clear on this, from anyone who is knowledgeable on this sort of thing.

I understand that if you are with an HIV+ person and have unprotected sex, you can contract the virus. But, say perhaps, Person "A"  sleeps with Person "B". Person B was tested for HIV 2.5 months prior to sleeping with A, with negative results.

But person B slept with someone else after being tested, and was at high risk for contracting HIV without knowing it.

Because it was so close to the testing date, not enough antibodies were in the blood, making B believe he/she was clean through negative test results.

Is A at risk?
In other words, does it take 3-6 months for there to be sufficient antibodies in a person's (B) system to pass along to another person (A), and is the "window period" for testing also for passing the virus along? Or is it that once you come in contact with an HIV infected person you have it right away, and are at risk of passing it irregardless of test results?

Hope this makes sense. Thanks in advance.

[dreamer646]

Apologies, I made a typo in my original post.

The third line is suppose to read as follows:

"But person B slept with someone else RIGHT BEFORE being tested, and was at high risk for contracting HIV without knowing it. "

[Teak]

Solution. You don't have unprotected sex with anyone until you both tested together and received your conclusive negative results or you ALWAYS use condoms correctly and consistently.