You describe mutual masturbation followed by unprotected oral sex, followed by your decsion to leave when your partner's comments lead you to what sounds like appropriate concerns about his risk of infection (despite his claims to be HIV negative). Masturbation is safe sex - no risk for you there. As for oral sex, I don't know where you heard the suggestion than 8% (that is 8 out of 100 exposures, almost 1 in 10) of persons with oral expsoures to infected partners acquire HIV but that is absurd. The quoted figure for HIV risk, if one has oral sex with an infected partner is less than 1 in 10,000 and, in my estimation that is too high. Neither of us on this site have ever seen or reading the medical literature of a convincing instance in which HIV was passed by oral sex. This includes by all of the people who had gum disease, etc.
As for your current symptoms, you may have missed our repeated statements that the symptoms of the ARS are TOTALLY non-specific and when people experience "ARS symptoms" they are much more likely to have something else, usually some other, more typical virus infection. When this has been studied in the US, less than 1% of persons seeking medical care for "ARS symptoms" are found to have HIV, the remainder having symptoms due to other processes. In addition, it is also important to realize that many person who acquire HIV do not experience the ARS. For a person to try to judge their HIV risk based on "ARS symptoms" is a waste of time. Thus, despite the symptoms of sore throat and rash that you are experiencing are compatible withthe ARS, it remains most unlikely that the exposures you describe gave you HIV, or that this is ARS. My suggestion, see your health care provider about your sore throat. You likely caught a community acquired respiratory tract infection or strep throat from him, not HIV. Hope this helps. EWH
http://www.cdc.gov/hiv/resources/factsheets/oralsexqa.htm
Apparently there are a number of factors that they did not account for, including bleeding gums. Despite this factor, however, the difference in your estimate versus this estimate seems significant. Has this study been proven to be out of date? Are there more recent studies that have proven this to be incorrect? I apologize, however, my rash seems to be getting worse and I am simply attempting to understand the situation that I am in.
Also, if acceptable, I have one additional question. When should I go to get tested for my own piece of mind (since the possibility of my contracting HIV was so small). Should I wait for 4 weeks or 6, or the full 3 months?
Thanks again for all of your help!
As for testing, getting testing is fine. If your testing is to alleviate your concerns regarding the exposure you describe, then wait until at least 6-8 weeks to get tested. In that way you will have results at a time when about 95% (6 weeks) and >98% (8weeks) of tests that are going to be positive following exposure will be. We do recommend regular, periodic STD "screening (testing in the absence of symptoms) for persons who have had multiple partners over a period of less than a year. As a matter of personal protection, we recommend annual testing for anyone who has had two or more sex partners in the past year (we consider this to be health maintenance- we also recommend you get your blood pressure and cholesterol checked regularly). EWH
Even more importantly however is that the abstract does not say the the risk for getting sex from oral sex (single episode) is about 8%, it says, based on what appear to be small numbers of persons, that about 8% of men who have sex with other men in SF may have gotten their infection through oral sex. This is a very different thing. EWH
The trouble with any studies undertaken and what Health Authorities report. A lot of the information obtained on risk exposures is from word of mouth from the patient . How can you guarantee that they are being 100% honest about their exposure?
The information is now out there that unprotected anal sex is a high risk event. Yet are people going to admit that they have done this? To avoid embarrassment, would they perhaps limit the scenario to a doctor to say just unprotected oral as a way of avoiding what they think will be embarrassment of the real exposure, i.e. unprotected sex?
From what I can gather, a small study like this with a high percentage obtaining HIV from oral, the above argument should be considered? Because, if these were accurate and a true reflection, a hell of a lot more people would be infected in the real world then there is and a hell of a lot of records from hospitals reporting a high percentage of risk exposures for people contracted HIV against this exposure - Oral Sex!