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I had an incident where I was with a guy (who claimed to be clean), and there was no physical penetration. However, he was rubbing his penis against my anus, including the head of his dick (and although I'm not too sure, I do believe precum was involved). However, when I got home, I noticed that there was little drops of blood on the toilet paper. Not large amounts, but literally just a little bit of dots, meaning he either irritated a hemorrhoids (which I'm aware that I have), or an anal abrasio/fissure. My question is, if my partner was lying in regards of his status, and precum was involved, what is the likelihood of contraction? Please someone help me out?!...
but I had the impression, and based on the doctor's in this forum that respond to similar questions, that the presence of a fissure makes the act riskier than the lack of a presence of a fissure? Considering that a fissure is an open passage way, and I believe there was precum involved?
HIV is unable to reproduce outside its living host (unlike many bacteria or fungi, which may do so under suitable conditions), except under laboratory conditions; therefore, it does not spread or maintain infectiousness outside its host.
I don't want to sound unaware, but I've heard that it's unable to reproduce outisde it's living host, but wouldn't the presence of precum and an anal fissure meant hat the virus is capable of trasmitting from one host to another, considering that a bleeding anal fissure is an open passage way? Or by saying it does not reproduce outside of it's host, you're insinuating that once the precum has been exposed to air, it is no longer active, and thus even though the anal fissure has been exposed to it, the virus is no longer potent or infectious?
Or by saying it does not reproduce outside of it's host, you're insinuating that once the precum has been exposed to air, it is no longer active, and thus even though the anal fissure has been exposed to it, the virus is no longer potent or infectious?
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