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Avatar universal

Another question, if I may?

http://www.thebody.com/Forums/AIDS/SafeSex/Archive/Symptoms/Q171749.html

Dr Bob states that he agrees with the suggestion that if symptoms are suggestive of HIV then it should not be ruled out, despite a negative test outside the window period.

Why would he say that, and under what scenario would this happen?
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186166 tn?1385259382
i cant seem to find a post where you've stated your exposure or if/when you've tested.
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Avatar universal
You've been here long enough to know PCR tests are not approved diagnostic tests. You only need an antibody test. If the test is positive then a comfirmative test will be given. (Western Blot or IFA)
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What I'm really asking is at what point / symptoms (ignoring the PCR tests, and just say someone had only taken AB tests) would one have to consider alternative testing?
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There is nothing to discuss. He doesn't have HIV even if he did have a risk.
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But this guy had a no-risk encounter, plus PCRs. So it was obvious without the tests (if that was his only exposure).
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Avatar universal
Then I suggest you read Dr. Bob's response.

"Regarding your symptoms, I cannot diagnose the cause over the Internet. However, I can tell you what's not causing them. It's not HIV! Your negative HIV tests trump all symptoms! "

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