Sorry to ask such basic questions, but the internet is full of conflicting opinions and by looking around your site i have come to highly respect your opinion.
1.) In heterosexual intercourse from the mans perspective; is anal sex any higher risk than vaginal intercourse?
2.) Does having type one herpes leave you anymore likely to contract HIV assuming all else is equal?
3.) I completely understand that symptoms for HIV are no indication for assuming one does or does not have the disease. however, i was curious as to the time frame after exposure that stage one symptoms can possibly be attributed to HIV. Is 5 days too soon for symptoms to have HIV as a possible causation, Is 60 days too long a period for HIV to be an attributable cause for stage one symptoms?
Thank you vary much for your time, it is greatly appreciated.