"And, just because I need a bit of clarification on the encounter that you described, it is my understanding that while you were having sex, you were protected (and even if the condom wasn't fully down, you were protected), and that the cut that has you worried was under the cover of the condom during that time. Further, you are mostly worried because of unprotected oral and/or the possibility of transmission from hand to genital contact. Is that about right?"
-No. The cut on me was NOT covered by the condom and I'm not worried about unprocted oral.
No, I wouldn't think that it would be 100%, considering that even people who stick themselves with hollow bore needles in health occupation settings don't come close to a 100% risk of contracting HIV. Of course, I am not an expert, but I feel fairly comfortable in saying that even had you been having sex with someone known to be HIV+, your risk would not come close to 100%.
Of course, you also are making the assumption that the woman you were with was HIV positive, which is a fairly large assumption to make. Just because she was a street walker does not mean she automatically has HIV. Chances may be higher, but I think it is a fallacy to just assume she had it.
Understood, the doctor who prescribed PEP to you decided that, perhaps, it was the best thing to do under the circumstances (or, at least, one would hope). As I've said before, putting aside that debate, his or her prescription of PEP was probably based on the idea that it is better to be safe than sorry. Beyond that, I am curious as to whether you or the doctor was the first to bring up the possibility of going on PEP in the first place.
And, just because I need a bit of clarification on the encounter that you described, it is my understanding that while you were having sex, you were protected (and even if the condom wasn't fully down, you were protected), and that the cut that has you worried was under the cover of the condom during that time. Further, you are mostly worried because of unprotected oral and/or the possibility of transmission from hand to genital contact. Is that about right?
If so, you should know that, if any documented cases of either exist, they are exceedingly rare, regardless of the "cut" (and I only use quotation marks around the word cut because I wonder how large or deep said cut was - I find it odd that a sex worker would engage in fellatio with someone with a bleeding gash on the tip of their penis).
In the end, though, you have done your course of PEP and have tested negative out to 5 weeks. This alone is an excellent sign that you did not contract HIV from the circumstances you described, and hopefully, at this point, leads to at least a little relief from your anxiety.
Of course, if you need an answer from an expert on the subject, you might also try posting your question on the moderated HIV forum if you have not already done so. No guarantee it will stay there, but it might be worth a try.
Hi lezze, and many answered to my no risk situation.. hand job= no risk but this is unique my recent exposure.. two weeks ago my friends had sex with prostitute! am so stupit and drunk and went their after they had sex i went to her room she was naked and slept i just kissed and pressed her breast( later i took her hand and kept it on my penis) i felt wetness and also i had precum were she wiped it on my shirt... later i master batted in my underwear! is there any risk as her hand was wet and two weeks after i had sore throat and mild fever! please access my risk! am so stupit infact i stopped drinking please reply
i had unprotected sex with a woman i didnt really know what can i say i was drunk and stupid but i was in herfor for only less than five minutes when we were done she told me she had herpes and that she didnt have a breakout for about a year what should i do about herpes and hiv
Ok, i know this seems like a silly question, but here goes...
I often see the following statement as you mentioned above:
"test 6-8 weeks post exposure for a good indication of your status BUT follow up with a test at 3 months for a conclusive result"
For whatever reason, i remained oblivious for the first 3 months and then suddenly got scared and took the test. Obviously i missed the 6-8 week window, but is there something significant about that earlier window? Or is a single test at the 3 month mark just as conclusive?
The reason i ask is because the curve they show for CD4 increases and Virus HIV RNA concentration dips once the antibodies start to fight back. Is there a point at which the antibodies dip too - or do they remain constant?
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