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My husband and I were briefly separated in September 2004 (2.5 yrs ago)and he had unprotected sex. He was never tested for anything, BUT I tested myself for some STD's but not chlamydia (all other tests were negative). We resumed our relationship and have been monogamous ever since.
I began suffering from postcoital bleeding, non-odor discharge, pelvic pain as well as occasional painful sex for the past 2.5 years and about 6mos after we had reunited. My doctors had assumed I had HPV since I frequently had abnormal paps. I was finally tested recently for Chlamydia and tested positive. I have taken my 1g dose of zithromax and I am sending my husband to get tested/treated as well. Could my long term symptoms have been caused by Chlamydia this WHOLE TIME?
Now, IF his tests results come back negative, could he still have given me Chlamydia back in 2004? If so, does this mean he was asymptomatic and it cleared itself on its own?
How quickly is his body able to clear itself on its own IF i've had Chlamydia this whole time, and we are very sexually active? I ask because i've heard of instances where one person has chlamydia and their partner doesn't, even though they regularly have sex with eachother. Is that possible? How can a person test negative when they are constantly having sex with someone who DEFINATELY has chlamydia?
It is almost unheard of chlamydia infection to be going on till 2.5 years into the future. 99% of the time it clears up on its own within few months. One possibility is that you might have been passing it on back and forth between each other if not treated in the past. If you are sure that your test has not been false positive & you have not stepped outside the monogamous relationship with your husband, then you need to be questioning your husband about his activities.
Another thing, this happens to be HIV support forum. It will be good if you take this issue over to the STD forum.
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