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Exposure and Fear

by worriedgrl386, Nov 10, 2009 06:59PM
I had a risky sexual encounter at the end of June. I tested negative at 8 weeks and then again at 3 month mark with HIV 1/2. Is this absolutely 100% conclusively negative or are there false negatives? I know we are not supposed to "self-diagnose" using symptoms but I do have a white tongue and everything I've read about that points at HIV. Also I just got over the worst flu I think I've ever had. I have had no other risks since the June incident. If I am conclusively negative why the white tongue? My doc said I had to test out to 6 months which will be in December.
Member Comments (3)

by JeanClaude, Nov 10, 2009 07:57PM
To: worriedgrl386
What do you define as a "risky sexual encounter" ? You should NEVER attempt to diagnose the absence or presence of HIV through ANY symptoms A "White Tounge" if indeed it is actually "white", is NOT at all HIV specific.

The time to a CONCLUSIVE HIV antibody test is 3 months.

-JC-

by worriedgrl386, Nov 10, 2009 07:59PM
To: Jean Claude
My risky sexual encounter was unprotected vaginal sex with a guy of unknown status.

by JeanClaude, Nov 10, 2009 08:02PM
To: worriedgrl386
As you have tested CONCLUSIVELY NEGATIVE @ 3months, you may look elsewhere for the cause of your "white tongue"

-JC-
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